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1.
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Ethical Issues The manual describes ethics in part as a moral approach
to intellectual issues:
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2.
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Advocates for persons with HIV have fought for years to:
A | maintain confidentiality | C | both of these | B | promote mandatory
reporting | D | neither of
these |
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3.
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The ongoing struggle between legislating morality for public good and fighting
to retain individual autonomy rights is an ethical dilemma exemplified by SEP’s (syringe
exchange programs):
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4.
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What reasons are given for ethics issues being rarely covered in orientation
sessions or continuing education activities with agencies:
A | these issues can be quite personal | C | both of these | B | there are no right or
wrong answers in many case examples | D | neither of these |
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5.
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A policy that sets a standard for each new client to receive an intake interview
within 24 hours is an example of the basic ethical principle of _______________:
A | justice | D | nonmaleficence | B | autonomy | E | fidelity | C | beneficence |
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6.
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In determining an individual’s ability to decide and act autonomously, a
counselor must:
A | establish that the individual is competent | C | both of these | B | ensure the individual
has the necessary information to make a sound decision in an unbiased manner | D | neither of these |
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7.
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In “doing good” for a client, it is deemed unwise for the clinician
to take the client’s viewpoint and cultural context into account:
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8.
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Sexual and financial exploitation of a client by a clinician is a blatant
violation of which basic ethical principle:
A | justice | D | nonmaleficence | B | autonomy | E | fidelity | C | beneficence |
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9.
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The example of the client who shows up late and is terminated or transferred by
the clinician only because he is the third client to show up late that day is a subtle example of a
violation of which basic ethical principle:
A | justice | D | nonmaleficence | B | autonomy | E | fidelity | C | beneficence |
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10.
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Telling the truth and keeping promises is at the core of which basic ethical
principle:
A | justice | D | nonmaleficence | B | autonomy | E | fidelity | C | beneficence |
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11.
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Confidentiality contracts may be breached for:
A | suicidal or homicidal client intentions | C | the breaking of certain agency rules
by the client | B | instances of reported child abuse | D | all of the above |
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12.
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Every time a clinician takes morally correct action in a
“duty-to-treat” situation, they and their agency are legally protected:
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13.
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If a client has HIV but has not informed his partner about his HIV status, a
counselor could be held liable in a civil lawsuit for knowing and not telling the client’s
partner:
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14.
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It is extremely rare for a legal judgement to be made against a clinician who
was following appropriate procedures and standards for her profession and institution in which she
worked:
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15.
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Which is true for dual relationships where a provider may have had contact with
a client in a social or sexual context as well as in a professional role:
A | clinician should not assume a professional role with that client if
possible | B | clinician should take advantage of the dual relationship and insist upon serving as
counselor for that individual |
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16.
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Which is not a step for working through ethical issues as outlined by
NASW’s Ethical Issues training manual:
A | identify clinical, legal, system, cultural and ethical issues | C | list all possible
options and examine their pros and cons | B | review what principles are at stake with
questions such as “Is harm being done by or to the client?” | D | all of these are outlined
steps |
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17.
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Which are given as additional resources for ethical problem solving:
A | consultation with other providers in the community who understand the culture and
what the clinician does | C | seek pro bono or reduced rate legal
consultation | B | consult professional standards or codes of ethics documents for your
profession | D | all are
mentioned |
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18.
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Legal Issues Many legal issues have ethical implications:
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19.
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Which are examples cited where legal questions may arise regarding access to
treatment and issues of discrimination:
A | a hospital is unwilling to admit a potentially relapsing client with a history of
drug or alcohol use | D | a business fires a secretary when it discovers she was once treated for
alcoholism | B | a long term care facility is reluctant to accommodate a methadone-maintained
client | E | all examples above
are mentioned | C | a school refuses to hire an HIV positive teacher |
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20.
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An alcohol abuser whose drinking results in assaultive episodes that endanger
elderly residents at a long-term care facility qualifies as an example of a condition under which the
facility can legally exclude that individual:
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21.
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Which examples listed below correctly state the protocol service providers may
follow with respect to current illegal drug users:
A | a hospital specializing in treating burns could refuse to treat a burn victim because
he uses illegal drugs | C | both of these | B | a homeless shelter could refuse to admit an
abuser of illegal drugs | D | neither of these |
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22.
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In 1998, the Supreme Court held that asymptomatic HIV is a
“disability” under the ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act):
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23.
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What conditions must exist to protect individuals living with HIV/Aids from
discrimination according to the Bragdon vs. Abbott decision:
A | the individual must be “qualified” for service | C | both of these
| B | the individual must not pose a “direct threat” to the health or safety of
others | D | neither of
these |
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24.
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In cases where a public accommodation could argue that an HIV-positive
individual poses a direct threat, it would also have to show that the threat could not be eliminated
by a modification of policies, practices, or procedures, or by the provision of auxiliary aids or
services:
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25.
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The 2 Federal Acts would not protect an alcoholic secretary who binges on
weekends but reports to work sober and performs her job safely and efficiently:
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26.
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With respect to alcohol, the ADA permits employers to:
A | prohibit alcohol use in the workplace | C | require employees who abuse alcohol
to maintain the same qualifications for employment, job performance and behavior that it requires of
other employees | B | require all employees to be free from the influence of alcohol at
work | D | all of
these |
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27.
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With respect to illegal drugs, the ADA permits employers to:
A | administer drug testing | C | require its employees to be free from illegal drug influence at
work | B | prohibit use of illegal drugs at work | D | all of these |
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28.
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The Drug-Free Workplace Act requires employers to establish an ongoing
substance-free awareness program for its employees:
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29.
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Current abusers of drugs have no protection against discrimination in
employment, even if they are “qualified” and do not pose a “direct
threat”:
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30.
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Where can one find a useful “Q & A” about the ADA’s
protections for persons living with HIV/Aids:
A | the back of this TIP manual | C | all employers have a
copy | B | Civil Rights Division of the U.S. Dept. of Justice web site given in the
manual | D | all of
these |
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31.
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For employment discrimination complaints, which avenues offer the advantage of
being inexpensive and not requiring an attorney:
A | EEOC (equal employment opportunity commission) | C | State Attorney
General | B | US Dept. of Justice | D | all of the above |
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32.
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With respect to confidentiality of information about clients, Federal law
applies throughout the country and preempts less restrictive State laws:
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33.
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With respect to the Federal Government, which item below must be contained in a
proper consent form for the release of confidential information:
A | signature of the client | D | statement that the client may revoke the consent at any time,
except what has already been acted on | B | purpose or need for
disclosure | E | all of the
above | C | how much and what kind of information will be
disclosed |
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34.
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One strategy for releasing only information about substance abuse but not
information about HIV/AIDS is:
A | a narrowly drafted consent form | C | both are
mentioned | B | program-maintained filing systems that isolate the 2 different
issues | D | neither is
mentioned |
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35.
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Which is not a method complying with state laws mandating the reporting of TB
and HIV/AIDS cases if client identifying information must be reported:
A | obtain client consent | D | report under the audit and evaluation exception | B | use a code rather
than the client’s name (if state law permits) | E | all methods are mentioned | C | report through a QSOA
(qualified service organization agreement) |
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36.
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Suppose an HIV-infected client tells his counselor that he has had unprotected
sex or shared syringes with someone. How can programs notify the Public Health Dept. without
violating confidentiality:
A | sign a QSOA with the Public Health Depts. | D | obtain a court order after
consulting state law | B | obtain direct client consent | E | all are mentioned | C | notify the Public
Health Dept. in a way that does not identify the client as a substance
abuser |
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37.
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HMOs or MCOs can review client records or request information about treatment at
any time:
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38.
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Federal regulations do not apply to any disclosure of information that
would identify a deceased client as a substance abuser:
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39.
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Medical emergency exceptions permit only disclosure to medical personnel:
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40.
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Which is not an additional rule regarding confidentiality given at the
end of the segment:
A | Federal confidentiality regulations require programs to notify clients of their right
to confidentiality | C | Federal regulations require programs to keep written records in a secure
room | B | programs can never decide when to permit clients to view or obtain copies of their
records | D | all are
mentioned |
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41.
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In order to issue your certificate, the questions below are required but have a zero point value in the final grade analysis Please choose one of the options below for receiving your certificate of CEH’s.
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42.
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Please indicate your mailing address or your Fax #
if you chose either of these options for receiving your certificate and a contact phone
number
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43.
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If you have one, indicate your licensing organization, license type and # (ex. BBS, MFT#123456). Returning participants may leave this
blank
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Please evaluate the course by choosing one of the responses below for each
question. This data will help us to improve our program and meet certifying organization
requirements. Thank you for allowing QUE to be your
provider.
A | Excellent | C | Average | B | Above Average | D | Below Average |
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44.
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The extent to which this course met the objectives
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45.
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The adequacy of the author’s mastery of the subject
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46.
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Efficiency of course mechanics
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47.
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The applicability or usability of the information for you
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48.
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Website functionality and ease of use
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49.
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Availability of course instructors (does the website provide adequate direction
on how to access a staff member or instrutor if needed for assistance?)
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50.
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Please provide us with any additional comments or suggestions that would help us
to improve the quality of our program:
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51.
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How did you find out about QUE?
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