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1. Effective supervisors observe, mentor, coach, evaluate, and inspire, while:
A. Building teams and creating cohesion
B. Resolving conflict and shaping agency culture
C. Attending to ethical and diversity issues
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about clinical supervision?
A. The first aim of clinical supervision is to ensure quality services and to protect the welfare of clients
B. Clinical supervision is how counselors in the field learn, and it is much more important than classroom education
C. Supervision has a direct impact on workforce development as well as on staff and client retention
D. Supervisors have a legal and ethical responsibility to ensure quality care to clients and to maintain program policies and procedures
3. The roles of the clinical supervisor include teacher, coach, mentor, and ____________.
A. Counselor
B. Supporter
C. Consultant
D. None of the above
4. Supervision needs to be tailored to the knowledge base, skills, experience, and assignment of each counselor.
A. True
B. False
5. New supervisors should ask for a period of one month to learn about their new role, and should use this time to find their managerial style.
A. True
B. False
6. The model of supervision that incorporates descriptive dimensions and addresses contextual dimensions into supervision is part of which orientation?
A. Competency-based approaches
B. Treatment-based models
C. Developmental approaches
D. Integrated models
7. There is a logical sequence to counselor development, although it is not always predictable or rigid.
A. True
B. False
8. The ability to honor and respect the beliefs, languages, interpersonal styles, and behaviors of those receiving services, as well as staff who are providing such services is known as:
A. Cultural orientation
B. Cultural relevance
C. Cultural competence
D. None of the above
9. When people experience cultural incapacity, they see all cultures and people as alike and equal, and they discriminate by ignoring culture.
A. True
B. False
10. Ethical standards should always tell the professional what to do, and how to do it.
A. True
B. False
11. Which of the following accurately describes dual relationships and boundary issues?
A. Dual relationships can occur at several levels, but the most dangerous is between supervisors and supervisees
B. Examples of dual relationships in supervision include providing therapy, developing an emotional relationship, and becoming an Alcoholics Anonymous sponsor for a supervisee
C. Firm and always-or-never rules must be applied to the supervisor/supervisee relationship in order to maintain appropriate boundaries
D. All of the above
12. Questions that may be asked when determining if there is a legal or ethical violation include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Was there a duty-to-warn or duty-to-act situation to which the counselor failed to respond?
B. Was there an unrecognized duty to report dependent abuse or a breach of confidentially?
C. Was any damage incurred as a result of the counselor’s behavior?
D. Did an inappropriate or unprofessional action occur?
13. An individual development plan is a detailed plan for supervision that includes the goals the supervisor and the counselor wish to address over a certain time period.
A. True
B. False
14. Clients are often the best assessors of the skills of the counselor, so supervisors should routinely seek input from the clients as to the outcome of treatment.
A. True
B. False
15. An organization’s culture and policies should encourage counselors to develop a life that does not revolve around work, and allow for appropriate use of time off and self-care without punishment.
A. True
B. False
16. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about direct versus indirect counselor observations?
A. The supervisor’s understanding of the session will be improved by direct observation of the counselor, which is much easier today, with the variety of technological tools that are available
B. A disadvantage of indirect reporting is that a counselor will recall a session as he or she experienced it, either positively or negatively
C. A supervisee might claim client resistance to direct observation, but this is more likely to be reported when the counselor is anxious about being taped
D. Typically, a supervisor can get a fairly accurate picture of the counselors competency just by observing one session
17. Some disadvantages of live observations are that they can be intrusive and anxiety-provoking for all involved.
A. True
B. False
18. While the time frame for clinical and administrative supervision should be short-term and ongoing, the time frame for counseling should be:
A. Open-ended
B. Based on the amount of personal growth and change achieved
C. Based on client needs
D. Determined by the counselor and supervisor
19. Unresolved personal conflicts of the supervisor, activated by the supervisory relationship, is an example of supervisor transference.
A. True
B. False
20. Small group practices and agencies with limited funding for supervision may benefit from _________ supervision.
A. Peer
B. Triadic
C. Intensive
D. Group
21. It is very important to establish a climate of cooperation, collaboration, trust, and ___________ during the first few supervision sessions.
A. Comfort
B. Clarity
C. Genuineness
D. Safety
22. With case consultation or case management, the validity of a self-report is dependent on the supervisor’s experience and the counselor’s insightfulness.
A. True
B. False
23. The number of supervisees reporting to one supervisor should be no more than ten.
A. True
B. False
24. Improving counselor’s knowledge and skills while offering a forum to implement evidence-based practices within an organization are considered administrative benefits.
A. True
B. False
25. Counselors should explore client concerns about taping and observation, and if the client objects, the counselor must respect that choice and ask another client.
A. True
B. False
26. A colleague who has experienced direct observation and found it helpful may be a good person to speak to about supervision, and he or she may be referred to as:
A. A role model
B. An advisor
C. A mentor
D. A champion
27. It may be necessary for a supervisor to openly address staff resistance, but the skill is in knowing when to address and when to deflect the resistance.
A. True
B. False
28. Mentorship is a formalized relationship between a skilled professional and a mentee and is established to enhance the mentee’s career by:
A. Providing leadership and support
B. Creating respect and collaboration
C. Building skills and knowledge
D. Advising and modeling acceptance
29. Although there are models and standards of clinical supervision, every agency needs to develop its own clinical supervision approach.
A. True
B. False
30. Which of the following most accurately describes Level 3 supervisors?
A. Balanced levels of self-awareness, motivation, and autonomy
B. Driven by alternating anxiety and self-confidence, while feeling the need to be independent
C. Mechanical in their methods, with the need to assert their leadership and position
D. All of the above
31. The legal and ethical contexts of supervision as well as sanctions for noncompliance by either the supervisee or supervisor should be included in a supervision contract.
A. True
B. False
32. Each of the following is a learning goal when addressing ethical standards EXCEPT:
A. Demonstrating supervisory interventions to help the counselor find appropriate professional boundaries with clients
B. Helping counselors learn and integrate a process of ethical decision-making into their clinical practice
C. Demonstrating skills in addressing transference and countertransference issues as they arise in clinical supervision
D. Monitoring appropriate training for counselors in the area of ethical and legal standards
33. Which of the following is a true statement about the differences between dual qualities and dual relationships?
A. Dual relationships are inevitable in certain communities
B. A dual relationship has the potential for the abusive use of power, where harm might be done to the client through manipulation
C. There is really no difference between a dual quality to a relationship and a dual professional and personal relationship
D. None of the above
34. Steps to ethical decision-making include:
A. Recognizing the ethical issues by asking whether there is potentially something harmful personally, or clinically
B. Evaluating alternative actions through an ethics lens
C. Making a decision and testing it
D. All of the above
35. When introducing changes in clinical practices, it is important to be ___________________ when approaching staff who are experiencing resistance to change.
A. Kind and compassionate
B. Understanding but determined
C. Flexible yet firm
D. Respectful and helpful
36. An effective supervisor is able to establish trust by serving as a team leader, inspire staff trough encouragement and motivation, and take appropriate risks to initiate change.
A. True
B. False
37. When addressing how personal issues affect job performance, the key question should be, “How can you improve your job performance regardless of personal troubles?”
A. True
B. False
38. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that countertransference impacts the counseling relationship?
A. A counselor’s personal issues may contaminate how he or she sees the client’s issues
B. The counselor may distance him or herself or avoid discussion when the client’s issues come to close to home
C. The counselor may have negative reactions to the client, based on the counselor’s current life issues
D. Counselors may disregard the client’s needs if too focused on their own issues
39. New supervisors who are promoted from within need to be considerate of staff reaction to the promotion and acknowledge the need for teamwork.
A. True
B. False
40. Quality leadership includes a networked team-based approach that values participative leadership and staff empowerment, bottom-up management, and:
A. Appropriate risk taking and fairness
B. Team input and collaboration
C. Communication and initiative
D. Unique styles and acceptance
41. A level 3 supervisor needs superior vision, which requires maturity, ____________, and wisdom.
A. Serenity
B. Nurturing
C. Strength
D. Understanding
42. Mentorship is a special kind of professional growth opportunity, and it is very similar to other supervisory models.
A. True
B. False
43. The mentoring program where participants attend a 5-day training session to assess leadership and management skills is known as the The Michael E. Townsend Leadership Academy.
A. True
B. False
44. When attempting to justify the need for a comprehensive supervision program, it is important to remember that administrative staff is most likely to be concerned about:
A. Legal and ethical requirements
B. Credentialing or accreditation requirements
C. Costs and cost benefits
D. All of the above
45. In many agencies, administrators may not have a clinical background and thus may not understand the differences between case management and clinical supervision.
A. True
B. False
46. The critical aspects in rolling out a clinical supervision system include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Administrative support and training of supervisors
B. Consistency of the message that supervision is here to stay and that clinical supervision is a requirement of the agency
C. At least 4-5 hours of education training sessions that explain the rationale for supervision
D. Time to implement the system, acknowledging and working through staff resistance to change.
47. A successful clinical supervision program begins with the support of clinical staff and experienced supervisors.
A. True
B. False
48. The following organizational issues should be considered by an agency before a clinical supervision system is implemented:
A. Theoretical considerations
B. Communication styles
C. Organizational context and motivation
D. Agency hierarchy and structure
49. Administrators must be concerned about_______________ liability.
A. Direct and vicarious
B. Informed and implied
C. Reasonable and rational
D. None of the above
50. An effective model for clinical supervision will keep the target clear, which is to ensure that the supervisee receives necessary skills and training.
A. True
B. False
51. Designing initial supervisory goals and measurable objectives for each counselor is part of which phase of the clinical supervision system?
A. Phase IV
B. Phase III
C. Phase II
D. Phase I
52. Formative evaluation is an established process that rates employees’ overall ability to do their job and evaluates their fitness for duty.
A. True
B. False
53. An agency can make supervision a priority by making a clear statement of the importance of supervision and providing the resources needed to perform this function.
A. True
B. False
54. The initial organizational assessment includes all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Does the staff have a common set of goals?
B. Do administrators model a norm of integrity?
C. Does the organization promote professional development?
D. Is the support for clinical supervision appropriately generous?
55. An informed consent template should include the purpose of supervision professional disclosure, supervision process, and due process.
A. True
B. False
56. An organization's guidelines should clearly state the frequency of supervision, ongoing feedback procedures, and commitment to ongoing professional development.
A. True
B. False
57. Policies suggest that each supervisee will receive _____ hours of supervision monthly, and _____ percent of this time should be devoted to clinical supervision.
A. 7; 55
B. 6; 60
C. 5; 45
D. 4; 50
58. Although documentation is not required as part of supervision, it is strongly recommended as a risk-management tool for organizations and agencies.
A. True
B. False
59. Most evaluation guidelines and tools identify general areas of competence to assess, and these include knowledge, skills, and:
A. Judgment
B. Attitudes
C. Motivation
D. Professionalism
60. Which of the following is NOT likely one of the purposes for the case study format?
A. To explore the client's clinical needs
B. To process relational issues in counseling
C. To evaluate the counselor's practical skills
D. To promote self-awareness for the counselor
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