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1. A health care professional has questions regarding involuntary testing for HIV. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. Involuntary testing is performed following an exposure incident.
B. Involuntary testing is performed prior to an exposure incident.
C. Involuntary testing is performed when there are indications and risk factors.
D. Involuntary testing is performed when there are indications and risk factors, and the test is clinically indicated and/or surveillance testing is required.
2. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. The first step of 4th generation testing is a screening test that focuses on HIV-1 antibodies.
B. The first step of 4th generation testing is a screening test that focuses on HIV-2 antibodies.
C. The first step of 4th generation testing is a screening test that focuses solely on the HIV-1 p24 antigen.
D. The first step of 4th generation testing is a screening test that includes HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and the HIV-1 p24 antigen.
3. Which of the following may cause a false positive HIV test?
A. An infection such as mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Diabetes
C. Opioid use over a period of two months
D. Opioid use over a period of six months
4. A 28-year-old male patient has questions regarding ARS. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?
A. ARS does not affect males over the age of 18.
B. ARS does not affect males over the age of 21.
C. ARS is the first stage of HIV infection; ARS is typically suspected in patients who had high-risk exposure to HIV-1 within the past 2 to 6 weeks.
D. ARS is the first stage of HIV infection; ARS is typically suspected in patients who had high-risk exposure to HIV-1 within the past 2 to 6 months.
5. Which of the following should be included in baseline laboratory testing?
A. Pregnancy testing for newly admitted female inmates
B. Blood alcohol level
C. Opioid level
D. INR
6. A health care professional has questions regarding recommended vaccinations for HIV-positive patients. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. For patients who require both Hep A and Hep B vaccines, Twinrix may be used.
B. Twinrix should not be used for patients who require both Hep A and Hep B vaccines.
C. Influenza vaccines should be administered every six months.
D. Influenza vaccines should be administered every 18 months.
7. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. All patients ≤ 26 years old who did not get any or all doses when younger should receive a 3-dose series of the HPV vaccine.
B. All patients > 26 years old who did not get any or all doses when younger should receive a 3-dose series of the HPV vaccine.
C. All patients should receive the 2-doses of the HPV vaccine.
D. All patients should receive the HPV vaccine.
8. Which of the following patients should receive the zoster vaccine?
A. Patients ≥ 40 years old
B. Patients ≥ 50 years old
C. Patients < 40
D. Patients < 50
9. Which of the following statements best defines the term viral suppression?
A. Viral suppression is defined as a viral load persistently below the level of detection (e.g., HIV RNA < 20 to 75 copies/mL).
B. Viral suppression is defined as a viral load persistently below the level determined by the attending physician.
C. Viral suppression is defined as a viral load persistently below a CD4 count of 400 cells/mm3.
D. Viral suppression is defined as a viral load persistently below a CD4 count of 600 cells/mm3.
10. Which of the following statements best defines the term virological failure?
A. Virologic failure is defined by a confirmed viral load > 50 copies/mL.
B. Virologic failure is defined by a confirmed viral load > 100 copies/mL.
C. Virologic failure is defined by a confirmed viral load > 200 copies/mL.
D. Virologic failure is defined by a confirmed viral load > 400 copies/mL.
11. A health care professional is developing an educational lecture focused on periodic HIV RNA testing. Which of the following informational points of interest should be included in the health care professional's lecture?
A. Viral load should be measured within 2 to 3 weeks after ART initiation or modification.
B. Viral load should be measured within 4 to 8 weeks after ART initiation or modification.
C. Viral load should be measured within 8 to 12 weeks after ART initiation or modification.
D. Viral load should be measured within 12 to 14 weeks after ART initiation or modification.
12. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Primary prophylaxis for PCP should be initiated for all patients with CD4 count < 200 cells/mm3 or CD4 percentage < 14% of total lymphocyte count.
B. Primary prophylaxis for PCP should be initiated for all patients with CD4 count < 200 cells/mm3 or CD4 percentage < 12% of total lymphocyte count.
C. Primary prophylaxis for PCP should be initiated for all patients with CD4 count < 300 cells/mm3 or CD4 percentage < 14% of total lymphocyte count.
D. Primary prophylaxis for PCP should be initiated for all patients with CD4 count < 400 cells/mm3 or CD4 percentage < 12% of total lymphocyte count.
13. A health care professional has questions regarding primary prophylaxis for MAC. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. Primary prophylaxis for MAC should be initiated for all patients over the age of 18.
B. Primary prophylaxis for MAC should be initiated for all patients under the age of 65.
C. Primary prophylaxis is not recommended for patients who are immediately initiated on ART, unless the CD4 cell count is below 200 cells/mm3.
D. Primary prophylaxis is not recommended for patients who are immediately initiated on ART,
14. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Viral load reduction below detection limits in ART-naïve patients usually occurs within the first 1 - 2 weeks of therapy.
B. Viral load reduction below detection limits in ART-naïve patients usually occurs within the first 2 - 4 weeks of therapy.
C. Viral load reduction below detection limits in ART-naïve patients usually occurs within the first 5 - 6 weeks of therapy.
D. Viral load reduction below detection limits in ART-naïve patients usually occurs within the first 8 - 24 weeks of therapy.
15. A health care professional has questions regarding ABC. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. Patients over the age of 65 should not be initiated on ABC.
B. Male patients over the age of 65 should not be initiated on ABC.
C. Avoid use of abacavir-containing NRTI backbone combinations in chronic hepatitis B co-infected patients unless combined with effective hepatitis B antiviral therapy.
D. Never combine abacavir-containing NRTI backbone combinations with hepatitis B antiviral therapy.
16. A 42-year-old patient has questions regarding Raltegravir. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?
A. Patients may be prescribed raltegravir 400 mg twice daily or 1200 mg once daily.
B. Patients may be prescribed raltegravir 400 mg once daily or 1200 mg once daily.
C. Patients may only be prescribed raltegravir 400 mg twice daily.
D. Raltegravir should only be taken three times per day.
17. Which of the following best represents a recommendation for TAF?
A. TAF is not recommended if CrCL < 30 ml/min.
B. TAF is not recommended if CrCL < 40 ml/min.
C. TAF is not recommended in male patients under the age of 25.
D. TAF is not recommended in male patients under the age of 25 with a CrCL < 40 ml/min.
18. Which of the following best represents a recommendation for Triumeq?
A. Triumeq may be administered once daily.
B. Administer Triumeq twice daily with food.
C. Triumeq is only for patients who are HLA-B 5701 positive.
D. Triumeq is only for female patients who are HLA-B 5701 positive.
19. Which of the following best represents a recommendation for Dovato?
A. Administer to patients twice daily with food.
B. Administer to patients three times daily without food.
C. Avoid in patients with HIV RNA >500,000 copies/ml, Hep B co-infection or 3TC resistance.
D. Administer to patients with HIV RNA >500,000 copies/ml, Hep B co-infection or 3TC resistance.
20. Which of the best represents a recommendation for RPV/T ENOFOVIR/FTC?
A. Administer to patients twice daily with food.
B. Administer to patients three times daily without food.
C. Contraindicated in patients receiving proton pump inhibitors
D. May be used concurrently with proton pump inhibitors.
21. Which of the following best represents a recommendation for DRV/c plus TDF?
A. DRV/c plus TDF is not recommended for patients with CrCl < 30 mL/min.
B. DRV/c plus TDF is not recommended for patients with CrCl < 40 mL/min.
C. DRV/c plus TDF is not recommended for patients with CrCl < 70 mL/min.
D. DRV/c should not be administered with TDF.
22. Which of the following best represents an initial ARV regimen consideration for a patient with a CD4 count < 200 cells/mm 3?
A. Initiate a RPV-based regimen.
B. Initiate a RPV-based regimen if the patient has a OI.
C. Initiate a RPV-based regimen if the patient upon patient request.
D. Do not use a RPV-based regimen.
23. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. ARV regimens must be taken with food.
B. ARV regimens must not be taken with food.
C. Food does not improve the absorption of ARV regimens.
D. Food only improves the absorption of ARV regimens in male patients over the age of 50.
24. Which of the following best represents an initial ARV regimen consideration for a patient with a psychiatric illness?
A. Consider avoiding EFV- and RPV-based regimens.
B. Only administer EFV- and RPV-based regimens.
C. Administer an EFV- and RPV-based regimen for a period of four weeks.
D. Administer an EFV- and RPV-based regimen for a period of eight weeks.
25. Which of the following statements best defines the term HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)?
A. HAND is a decline in neurocognitive functioning in persons with HIV and typically occurs earlier than neurocognitive disorders in persons without HIV.
B. HAND is a decline in neurocognitive functioning in male patients with HIV and typically occurs later than neurocognitive disorders in persons without HIV.
C. HAND is a decline in neurocognitive functioning in persons with AIDS, which is accompanied by weight loss.
D. HAND is a decline in neurocognitive functioning in persons with AIDS, which is accompanied by weight loss and depression.
26. A health care professional is developing an educational lecture focused on the treatment of pregnant HIV patients. Which of the following informational points of interest should be included in the health care professional's lecture?
A. Two-drug regimens are not recommended for pregnant patients.
B. Two-drug regimens are recommended for pregnant patients.
C. Pregnancy does not decrease the drug levels of cobicistat-containing regimens.
D. Pregnancy decrease the drug levels of cobicistat-containing regimens for a period of 12 - 24 hours.
27. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Gender-affirming hormone therapies are associated with hyperlipidemia, elevated cardiovascular risk, and osteopenia; in such cases, clinicians should never choose an ARV regimen.
B. Gender-affirming hormone therapies are associated with hyperlipidemia, elevated cardiovascular risk, and osteopenia; in such cases, clinicians should choose an ARV regimen that will not increase the risk of these adverse effects.
C. Gender-affirming hormone therapies should not be used concomitantly with an ARV regimen or with TAF.
D. Gender-affirming hormone therapies should not be used concomitantly with an ARV regimen or with FTC.
28. A health care professional suspects a 54-year-old female patient is experiencing drug resistance. Which of the following recommendations should the health care professional follow when addressing the patient's suspected drug resistance?
A. Obtain resistance testing while the patient is taking the failing regimen, or within 4 weeks after the regimen is discontinued if the plasma HIV RNA level is > 500 cps/mL.
B. Obtain resistance testing while the patient is taking the failing regimen, or within 6 weeks after the regimen is discontinued if the plasma HIV RNA level is > 500 cps/mL.
C. Obtain resistance testing while the patient is taking the failing regimen, or within 8 weeks after the regimen is discontinued if the plasma HIV RNA level is > 500 cps/mL.
D. Obtain resistance testing while the patient is taking the failing regimen, or within 12 weeks after regimen is discontinued if the plasma HIV RNA level is > 500 cps/mL.
29. A health care professional has questions regarding virologic failure. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. When virologic failure is confirmed, generally the regimen should be changed within one month.
B. When virologic failure is confirmed, generally the regimen should be changed within two months.
C. When virologic failure is confirmed, generally the regimen should be changed within three months.
D. When virologic failure is confirmed, generally the regimen should be changed as soon as possible to avoid progressive accumulation of resistance mutations.
30. Which of the following best represents an adverse effect of NRTIs?
A. Loss of bone mineral density/renal effects
B. QTc prolongation
C. Rash
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
31. Which of the following best represents an adverse effect of NNRTIs?
A. QTc prolongation
B. Hyperpigmentation
C. Depression
D. Anxiety
32. Which of the following best represents an adverse effect of PIs?
A. Increased CV risk
B. QTc prolongation
C. Erectile dysfunction
D. Epistaxis
33. Which of the following best represents an adverse effect of INSTIs?
A. Depression
B. Schizophrenia
C. QTc prolongation
D. Epistaxis
34. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Only male patients with chronic HBV should be assessed for immunity to HAV infection and vaccinated if nonimmune.
B. Only female patients with chronic HBV should be assessed for immunity to HAV infection and vaccinated if nonimmune.
C. Only patients, over the age of 65, with chronic HBV should be assessed for immunity to HAV infection and vaccinated if nonimmune.
D. All patients with chronic HBV should be assessed for immunity to HAV infection and vaccinated if nonimmune.
35. A health care professional has questions regarding HIV and TB. Which of the following informational points of interest should be communicated to the health care professional?
A. HIV infection significantly increases the risk of progression from latent to active TB disease.
B. HIV infection does not increase the risk of progression from latent to active TB disease.
C. Active pulmonary or extra pulmonary TB disease requires initiation of TB treatment within four months.
D. Active pulmonary or extra pulmonary TB disease requires initiation of TB treatment within six months.
36. Which of the following statements best describes IRIS?
A. IRIS is a collection of inflammatory disorders associated with depression.
B. IRIS is a collection of inflammatory disorders associated with anxiety.
C. IRIS is a collection of inflammatory disorders associated with paradoxical worsening of the symptoms of preexisting infections in HIV-positive individuals following the initiation of ART.
D. IRIS is a collection of inflammatory disorders associated with paradoxical worsening of the symptoms of preexisting infections in individuals diagnosed with AIDS.
37. A 52-year-old female patient has questions regarding wasting syndrome. Which of the following educational points should be expressed to the patient?
A. Wasting syndrome can be progressive and includes voluntary weight loss.
B. Wasting syndrome is progressive, involuntary weight loss, plus chronic diarrhea, chronic weakness, or documented fever in the absence of an explanatory concurrent illness or condition.
C. Female patients with HIV do not typically experience wasting syndrome.
D. Female patients, over the age of 40, with HIV do not typically experience wasting syndrome.
38. What is the primary indication for PrEP?
A. High-risk for acquiring HIV infection
B. Over the age of 18 with a high-risk for acquiring HIV infection
C. Under the age of 65 with a high-risk for acquiring HIV infection
D. Multiple sex partners with a history of psychiatric illness
39. A 44-year-old male patient is being initiated on PrEP. Which of the following lab tests should be completed before the patient initiates PrEP?
A. A HIV-1/2 blood test within 14-days prior to initiation of PrEP.
B. A HIV-1/2 blood test within 21-days prior to initiation of PrEP.
C. A serum creatinine within three months prior to initiation of PrEP.
D. A serum creatinine within six months prior to initiation of PrEP.
40. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Any BOP-authorized provider can prescribe PrEP.
B. Only health care professionals with a specialization in infectious disease can prescribe PrEP.
C. Only health care professionals with a specialization in HIV medicine can prescribe PrEP.
D. Only health care professionals with a specialization in infectious disease or HIV medicine can prescribe PrEP.
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